this post was submitted on 04 Mar 2025
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[–] pseudo@jlai.lu 1 points 1 day ago (2 children)

I see. Since the tarif is proportionate to the final price, the final price needs even higher than the initial price times (1 + tarif) in order to keep the profit the same.

[–] Sludgeyy@lemmy.world 2 points 1 day ago

Starting Price / (1-Tariff %) = Final Price Needed to Break Even

$5 / (1-.25) =

5/.75 = $6.67

If an item was $5 and there was a 30% tariff

5 / (1-.30) = $7.14

If there was a 30% tariff and the syrup company wanted to keep same profit they would have to sell each bottle for $7.14.

$7.14 Γ— .30 = $2.14

$7.14 - $2.14 = $5

[–] Sludgeyy@lemmy.world 2 points 1 day ago (1 children)

No, because (1 + tariff) isn't enough to keep up with the tariff because as the price goes up, the tariff also goes up.

Like in the example going from $5 to $6.25 (5 Γ— (1+.25)). Would result in 31 cents less per bottle.

It needs to be ~33% more or $6.67 for the syrup company to keep the same profit with a 25% tariff.

Final Price Γ— Tariff % = Tariff Amount

Final Price - Tariff Amount = Cost of Good Sold

Cost of Good Sold - Expenses = Profit

So if you need $2 profit

$2 = (Final Price - (Final Price Γ— Tariff %)) - Expenses

$2 = (X - (XΓ—.25)) - $3

$5 = X - .25X

$5 = .75X

X = $6.67

Formula would be

Profit = (Final Price - (Final Price Γ— Tariff %)) - Expenses

[–] pseudo@jlai.lu 2 points 21 hours ago (1 children)
[–] Sludgeyy@lemmy.world 2 points 21 hours ago