this post was submitted on 30 Jun 2025
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No it's not. He sets the scope as "all capitalist nations that have not been imperialised", which is logical. How can an imperialised country be imperialist towards another?
You are trying to include them in your argument.
Go look at that first sentence you keep quoting. It says ALL without any exceptions.
The truth is the “theory” they profess is unproven and you accept it all as fact and I do not based on the lack of evidence to support the claim.