this post was submitted on 30 Jun 2023
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[–] minorsecond@lemmy.ml 2 points 2 years ago (1 children)

I don't understand how someone can sue over someone else being harmed. Doesn't the person or entity suing have to be directly harmed in order to sue?

[–] Ado@lemmy.ml 4 points 2 years ago* (last edited 2 years ago) (1 children)

Yep, they upended the standing doctrine that requires you to be the party injured to sue the party causing the injury. But also these aren't true judges, they're political advocates. They will uphold standing doctrine where they see fit, and strike it down where they don't like here.

[–] minorsecond@lemmy.ml 2 points 2 years ago

I see. Thanks for the explanation!