this post was submitted on 12 Jun 2024
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Not that I actually consider the Bible to be an authoritative source on morality (see: slavery), but are those faithful to the original texts? I only ask because it's my understanding that sexuality wasn't viewed as a straight-gay spectrum back then, but instead as a dominate-submissive spectrum. Like, if they were to actually have a problem with same sex acts, it was more to do with messing with the social order than any inherit sexuality problems.