I will always use “who” because “whom” gives off too much of a Reddit vibe.
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Y'all is completely fine to use. It was a mistake for English to lose its distinction between second person singular and plural. Either we accept the word "y'all" or we go back to saying thou and thee, either way we can't just keep on awkwardly dancing around not having a distinction between second person plural and singular.
"Y'all"
I will die on the hill that it's more efficient and neutral than the alternatives.
English has to bend over backwards to make up for the fact that it doesn't have a natural plural 2nd person form.
Ye Y'all Youse (Dublin)
"Y'all" and the plural "all y'all" are part of my daily vocabulary. And I'm in no way of southern origin.
First we're all like "Thou is too casual, gotta use the plural second person instead." Then oh no, turns out number in pronouns is actually useful sometimes, but thou sounds old fashioned now, so we just gotta re-pluralize the second person. And then you get y'all.
I like y'all, but I almost wish we could just bring thou back.
For years I have said that y'all is the best thing to come out of the south.
I recently realized that w’all needs to be shakespeared too. Following the pattern of other languages, y’all and w’all are missing in English.
Also, I shakespeared the verb shakespeared, in reference to Shakespeare making up new words by following patterns among other words.
Putting the punctuation outside the quotes (or parentheses) when the quote is only part of a sentence. I.e. He said "I need to go now".
My pet peeve is people thinking they are being clever by complaining about the supposed incorrect usage of literally as figuratively.
People, including famous authors, have been literally (not hyperbole) using the word as an intensifier, and therefore, figuratively, since 1847, e.g. F Scott Fitzgerald, Charles Dickens, and William Thackeray.
Did we change the definition of 'literally'? | Merriam-Webster - https://www.merriam-webster.com/grammar/misuse-of-literally
This one is great.
Period AFTER the end of a quote.
My buddy Joe told me “I will live and die on this hill”.
Absolutely. Anyone who has done any programming should recognize that changing what's in the quote is corrupting the data.
If I'm quoting a question though, then it makes sense to include the question mark in the quote.
I laughed when Joe asked "That's the hill you chose?".
I'm shocked no one else pointed this out. This isn't a rule of grammar — this is a style rule, which isn't actually part of the English language. Different style guides recommend different things. This happens to be specifically delineated by American/Canadian style guides vs British/Australian style guides; however anyone could publish a style guide. If USA Today decided to make and publish a style guide that they used in their articles that said there should be periods both within and after a quote, that would be valid by that styleguide.
If the murky depths of my memories of school is correct, the location of the period is dictated by whether or not it is part of the quote. So, if the quote should have a period at the end, it goes inside the quotation marks. If the quote does not include the period (e.g. you are quoting part of a sentence), but you are at the end of a sentence in your own prose, you put the period on the outside of the quotation marks.
For me in American English it's also the commas that go inside the closing quotation marks, even when they're not part the original quote. I die a little every time I see this, so illogical.
If it's not part of the quote, just leave it outside.
I am not in defence of but actually annoyed by:
Using if instead of whether. For example: "I will check if the window is open". This means: "if the window is open, I will check". What people mean to say is "I will check whether the window is open".
Also, using was in hypotheticals instead of the correct were. For example: if I were going to check whether the window was open, I wouldn't be standing here. Not "if I was going to check [...]".
Ah good one. Less vs fewer is another like this. IDGAF the distinction there either
I do. If it's countable, it's fewer. Fewer people, fewer houses. If it's incountable it's less. Less rice, less water.
Using commas, wherever you want.
They should be logical thought breaks, not adhere to any rules of grammar.
I have to, take issue with this, one. The rules of commas are, pretty, easy actually: Use a, comma where you'd, pause when speaking. If, you read it out, loud and sound like Captain, Kirk then you put, a comma in the, wrong spot.
Anything that is used colloquially but technically isn't correct because some loser didn't like it 200 years ago. To boldly keep on splitting infinitives is a rejection of language prescriptivism!
I'm of the opinion that so long as it is understandable it does not matter. English was once written as it sounded and there was no spelling consistancy. Those who were literate had little issue with it.
Some related reading: https://ctcamp.franklinresearch.uga.edu/resources/reading-middle-english https://cb45.hsites.harvard.edu/middle-english-basic-pronunciation-and-grammar
Edit: Okay my rant is more related to spelling than grammar but still interesting.
It's not a grammar mistake per se, but I feel like sharing it and it is close enough so here we go.
As a non-native English speaker: How can you have mop~~b~~ and vacuum the floor but not broom the room?! I know it doesn't exist, but I don't care. If we have to phrase it as a grammar mistake: I use verbalisations where they are uncommon.
I agree. I'm going to start brooming the room. Thank you for this insight.
Deliberately not capitalising proper nouns as a show of disrespect (countries, people, titles, etc). Not "grammatically correct" but I think it falls under freedom of expression.
A lot, to be honest. Spend enough time around non-native English speakers and you realise how little sense English makes. Their 'mistakes' have their own internal consistency and in a lot of cases make more sense than English does.
There are so many examples for this. Some that come to mind:
- "He has 30 years” instead of “He is 30 years old" (Spanish “Tiene 30 años”)
- “How do you call this?” instead of “What do you call this?” (e.g., French: Comment ça s'appelle? I think German too)
- “I’m going in the bus” instead of “I’m going on the bus”
- “She is more nice” instead of “She is nicer”
Apart from that, try explaining to a learner why “Read” (present) and “Read” (past) is spelled the same but pronounced differently.
Or plural (or do I capitalize that here? 🤔) inconsistencies: one “mouse,” two “mice”; but one “house,” two “houses.” To be fair, other languages do that stuff too.
informal contractions are simply informal just because. there’s no real reason to consider them informal or not standard other than arbitrary rules.
“You shouldn’t’ve done that.” “It couldn’t’ve been him!” “I might’ve done that if you asked.”
I think if I took it too far and said that all contractions are basically acceptable, y'all'd'n't've agreed with me.
Singular they. I've had this opinion since long before I even knew about non-binary people. Using "he or she" to refer to a person without specifying gender is clunky as hell.
but singular they isn't incorrect in the least. anyone claiming otherwise has some agenda to push in spite of the facts of it's use for a good long while
It's not, but with... Political views as they are, it's gotten a lot of pushback. People don't even realize they use it regularly.
"Someone called for you"
"What did they want?"
Bam. Easy. I was stoked when magic the gathering changed card wording from "he or she" to "they" because it cleans up the wording so much.
Passive voice is completely fine to use.
Not only is it fine, but it's the most common (and i would say most correct) way to write scientific papers.
The tone of scientific papers is usually supposed to focus on the science, not the scientist, so you have "reagent A was mixed with reagent B", not "I mixed reagent A and reagent B".
An added bonus is that it prevents having to assign credit to each and every step of a procedure, which would be distracting. E.G., "Alice added 200 ml water to the flask while Bob weighed out 5 g of sodium hydroxide and added it to the flask".
In Dutch you're supposed to write "Volgens mij" ("in my opinion"), but it's pronounced more like it's one word. So I feel "volgensmij" flows better
Ending a sentence with a proposition is just fine. Picky people whom I've only seen parodies of on the Internet go "oh you ended your sentence with a preposition I have no idea what you mean by 'He went in' maybe you could explain what he went into? A jello mold? A ditch? What did go into?"
You asked if he went into the store and I said he went in, you know what I meant because of CONTEXT CLUES.
I've never met anyone who's ever been this picky but I'm ready to bite them if I ever find one.
It’s not grammatically incorrect to end a sentence with a preposition. It’s a common misconception that it is a rule, basically because one guy argued in favor of it back in the 1600s and had some support for formal writing in the 1700s. But it’s never been a broad rule, and even in formal contexts it’s not a rule in any current, reputable style or usage guides (so far as I know, at least).
Some more info on the topic: https://www.merriam-webster.com/grammar/prepositions-ending-a-sentence-with
I'm really sick of people treating AAVE and other dialects like grammar mistakes, is what. Grammar Nazis indeed, protecting the purity of the English language.
I do not like the way that unspaced em dashes look. More generally I don't think that having distinct em and en dashes is actually useful anyway, you can absolutely just use an en dash in either case with absolutely no loss of clarity or readability, but I do need to use em dashes for some work writing so I have a key on my keyboard for it and use it semi-regularly. Whenever I use an em dash outside of a professional context I space it. So, "he's coming next Monday — the 6th, that is — some time in the morning," as opposed to the more broadly-recommended, "he's coming next Monday—the 6th, that is—some time in the morning."
I have absolutely no reason for this other than subjective aesthetic preferences, but it has coincidentally become somewhat useful recently. LLMs notoriously use em dashes far more than humans but consistently use them unspaced, so it's a sort of mild defence against anything I write looking LLM-generated
In German there's the saying "macht Sinn", which is wrong since it's just a direct translation of "makes sense". Correct would be "ergibt Sinn", in English "results in sense", but I don't care, "macht Sinn" rolls off the tongue easier.
abbreviations. it doesn't save any meaningful time. it only prompts questions for clarification because people don't define the abbreviation prior to using it throughout their post. plus since everything is being abbreviated out of laziness, the same abbreviations get used for multiple things which just adds additional confusions.